The PGSEM Admission Test consists of questions that evaluate a
candidate’s quantitative, verbal, logical and data interpretive
abilities. A set of sample questions that illustrate the nature of the
test is provided along with these guidelines. (Please note that actual
questions may or may not be of the same pattern)
Instructions:
a. You should be in your assigned seat at the test center latest by 9
a.m. Latecomers will not be admitted.
b. You should bring the following to the Test Centre:
i Your
Test Admit Card, without which you will not be allowed to take the test.
ii HB
pencils, erasers, and sharpeners. (Calculator/watch calculator/ cell
phones etc. will not be allowed in the
examination
hall. You are advised not to bring these to the center, as they may be
lost/stolen if they are left outside
the room. IIMB bears no responsibility for any such loss.)
c. The test begins with the distribution of Application
Form-cum-Answersheet. ( A sample copy of the Application
Form-cum-Answersheet for this test is available on page 7 and 8 of this
booklet). You will be required to complete the application portion of
the form (including signature) before the test using HB pencil only.
(The Test Form Number (item 3) and Test Booklet Number (item 5) need to
be filled after receiving the test paper.)
d. Next, a Test Booklet will be distributed. You will be required to
write the Test Form Number (item 3) and the Test Booklet Number (item 5)
on the Application Form-cum-Answer sheet from your Test Booklet.
e. The Test Supervisor will announce the beginning of the test. After
the announcement, you may tear the seals of the test paper and begin the
test. The paper will consist of several sections. Each section will
contain several items/questions. You should read the directions for each
section of the test carefully. If you skip the directions, you may miss
the main idea and lose credit for some questions in that section.
f. Wrong answers carry negative marks.
g. You should remain seated after completing the test. The invigilator
will collect the Test Booklet and the Application Form-cum-Answersheet.
You will be allowed to leave the hall only after the Test Booklets and
Application Form-cum-Answersheets from all candidates in your hall have
been collected and accounted for.
Candidates found violating the instructions of the Test Supervisor will
be disqualified. Any candidate giving assistance or seeking/receiving
help from any source in answering questions or using unfair means in any
manner in the test will forfeit his/her chance of being considered for
admission.
In all matters concerning the Admission, the IIMB�s decision will
be final and binding on the applicant.
The information provided in the OMR Answer sheet will be used during the admission process. In order to avoid errors in filling up the actual OMR Answer sheet, it is advisable that you practice darkening ovals in the sample application form at home. Check it for completeness and accuracy. (You will NOT be allowed to bring the sample application form to the examination hall.)
Please adhere to the following instructions for filling the sample application form. For marking each item on the form, specific instructions are given below.
Please use only HB Pencil (not pen) for filling up/marking the application form.
Write your last name (surname), first name and initial of the middle name in the blank cells (one letter in each cell; in all 29 cells are provided for this purpose). For example, the name “Rajesh Chandrakant Desai” should be written as “Desai Rajesh C”. Leave a cell blank between two parts of your name. (In case you find it difficult to mark your complete name due to insufficient number of cells, please enter only the initial(s) of your first name and middle name). Darken the appropriate oval under each letter.
Box 2 : Test Admit Card NumberWrite only the last five digits of your Test Admit Card Number in these cells and then darken the corresponding ovals in columns below each number. For example : If your Test Admit Card No. is B080001, write only 80001.
Box 3 : Test Form NumberYou will find a three digit Test Form Number on the front page of your Test Booklet, which will be given to you in the examination hall. When you get the Test Booklet, write Test Form Number in Box 3 and then darken the corresponding ovals.
Box 4 : Telephone Number/ Mobile NumberEnter the telephone number /mobile number over which you could be contacted in Bangalore / Chennai, and darken the corresponding ovals. The box may be left blank if you do not have a number in Bangalore / Chennai.
Box 5 : Test Booklet NumberWrite your Test Booklet Number in Box 5 and then darken the corresponding ovals. You will find this stamped in on the front page (on top of right side) of your Test Booklet.
Box 6 : Work Experience (in
months)
Indicate only paid and full-time work experience (as on June 10, 2008).
Articleship, apprenticeship, internship, etc. which form an integral
part of the course of study should not be treated as work experience.
Write in three digits total months of your experience and then darken
the corresponding ovals in the columns below each number. In case
your experience is in one or two digits, add appropriate number of zeros
on the left to make it a three-digit number. For example 24 months
or 36 months should be marked as 024 and 036 respectively.
Write clearly your e-mail address at which you can be contacted. (There are no ovals to be darkened).
Box 8: Name of current employerWrite the name of the organization/company with which you are currently employed. (There are no ovals to be darkened).
ANSWERSThis section will be used to indicate the answers to the questions in the test.
Box 9: Address.
Write your mailing address in this box. The cells have been subdivided
as follows:
9.1 First line of address (1 8cells)
9. 2 Second line of address (19 cells)
9.3 Third line of address (19 cells)
9.4 City (12 cells)
9.5 Pincode (6 cells)
Write your complete address – each segment of the address in one line – in the blank cells and then darken the corresponding ovals in the columns below each letter/number (In case you find it difficult to mark your complete address due to insufficient number of cells, please abbreviate the address suitably).
9.6 Could you fill your complete address?
If you have been able to mark your complete mailing address in Boxes 9.1
to 9.5, darken the oval against “Yes”, otherwise darken the oval
against “No”.
Write the date and place of the test, and then sign the declaration at the appropriate place.
1 2 3 4
Please note that oval should be dark and should be filled in as completely as possible.
Wrong methods of marking answers
Some incorrect methods of marking are shown below:
| 1 2 3 4 | 1 2 3 4 | ||
| 22 |  |
25 |  |
| (Use of tick mark) | (Use of line mark) |
| 1 2 3 4 | 1 2 3 4 | ||
| 23 |  |
26 |  |
| (Use of cross mark) | (Half-filled oval) |
| 1 2 3 4 | 1 2 3 4 | ||
| 24 |  |
27 |  |
| (Use of dot) | (Mark outside the oval) |
How to change your answer : If your wish to change your answer, ERASE completely the already darkened oval by using a good quality eraser and darken the new oval indicating the new answer. Do not darken more than one oval. If more than one oval is darkened, the answer will be counted as wrong by the computer.
This document provides a selection of questions that have been asked in the past. It is indicative of the nature of questions that will appear in the PGSEM Admission Test. The sections, number of questions in each section, instructions etc. are provided to allow candidates to familiarize themselves with the nature of the test.
Please note that the number of sections, type of questions, number of questions, insructions for questions are subject to change from year to Year.
Section I
Number of Questions: 25
Directions for questions 1 to 10: In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Identify the appropriate word in each case.
For half a century, Peter G Drucker has been teacher and adviser to senior managers in business, human service organizations, and government. Sometimes called the godfather of modern management, he _____(1)_____ an acute understanding of socio-economic ______(2)___ with practical insights into how leaders can turn ______(3)____ into opportunity. With a rare ____(4)_____ for synthesis, Drucker nourishes his _____(5)_____ mind on a full range of intellectual disciplines, from Japanese art to network theory in higher mathematics. Yet he learns most from in-depth conversation with clients and students: a global network of men and women who _____(6)____ their ideas from action and act on ideas.
Since 1946, when his book Concept of the Corporation redefined employees as a resource rather than a cost, Drucker’s works have become an ever-growing ____(7)____ for leaders in every major culture, particularly among Japan’s top decision makers in the critical stages of their ____(8)_____ to world business leadership. A ______(9)____ share of productive organizations world-wide are led by men and women who consider Drucker their intellectual guide, if not their personal _____(10)____.
1.
(1) co-exists (2) combines (3) cooperates (4) coordinates
2.
(1) steps (2) layers (3) stratas (4) forces
3.
(1) turbulence
(2) power
(3) advocacy
(4) authority
4.
(1) view (2) feeling (3) position (4) gift
5.
(1) perplex
(2) doubling
(3) insatiable
(4) forceful
6.
(1) draw
(2) establish
(3) comment
(4) provoke
7.
(1) strength (2) contribution (3) resource (4) discussion
8.
(1) fate (2) destiny (3) future (4) rise
9.
(1) possessive (2) goodly (3) lamentable (4) projective
10.
(1) manager (2) philosopher (3) co-worker (4) mentorDirections for questions 11 to14: Read each sentence to detect whether there is any error in it. Each sentence is divided into three parts, namely 1, 2 or 3. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is '4'. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
11. If he would have prepared/
his lecture well in advance
(1)
(2)
it
would have been/ the best lecture in the entire conference.
No error
(3)
(4)
12. While going to the office
yesterday I suddenly realized that/
(1)
I
have forgotten the key /to my office room at home.
No error
(2)
(3)
(4)
13. No other library in town
has so many books/
(1)
which
belong to different disciplines/ as this library.
No error
(2)
(3)
(4)
14. People pay tribute to him on account of his/
dedicated
and selfless service/for the nation and its people.
No error
(2)
(3)
(4)
Directions for questions 15 to 19: Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given in bold letters.
15. Dormant:
(1) Harmful (2) Prosperous (3) Quiescent (4) Gentle
16. Germane:
(1) Pertinent
(2) Accustomed
(3) Prejudiced
(4) Attractive
17. Laconic:
(1) Expansive (2) Operational (3) Realistic (4) Terse
18. Prodigious:
(1) Outstanding (2) Dramatic (3) Wasteful (4) Phenomenal
19. Melancholic:
(1) Possessive (2) Gloomy (3) Refreshed (4) Derogatory
Directions for questions 20 to 23: Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word given in bold letters.
20. Assiduous:
(1) Timid (2) Precarious (3) Indolent (4) Inelegant
21. Rampant:
(1) Dubious (2) Restrained (3) Critical (4) Derogatory
22. Salubrious:
(1) Unfavourable (2) Unjustified (3) Unthinkable (4) Unscrupulous
23. Perilous:
(1) Cheerless (2) Grimy (3) Advantageous (4) Safe
Directions for questions 24 and 25: Indentify the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
24. He tends to __________ any suggestion I make in meetings.
(1) venture (2) precipitate (3) clement (4) discount
25. He _________the children to open their eyes and ears to the beauty of life.
(1) admonished (2) promised (3) exhorted (4) complemented
SECTION II
Number of Questions: 50
Directions for questions 26 to 42: The questions below are independent of each other. Answer each independently.
26. Free note books were to be distributed equally among 60 children of a class. Since 15 children were absent on the day of distribution each child got 5 notebooks extra. What was the total number of notebooks available for distribution ?
(1) 750 (2) 1200 (3) 900 (4) None of these
27. Three of the following four parts
numbered (1), (2), (3) & (4) are exactly equal. The number of
the part
which
is not equal to the remaining three parts is the
answer.
145 x
6 + 15 x 3 = 146 x 5 + 85 x 2 = 65x11+37x5
= 84 x 5 + 32 x 15
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
28. The area of a rectangular garden is 375 sq. metres and the length and the breadth are in the ratio of 5:3 respectively. What will be the cost of making a 80 cm broad pathway around boundary on all sides of the garden if cost of making the pathway is Rs.50/- per square metre?
(1) Rs.3200/- (2) Rs.3328/- (3) Rs.3228/- (4) None of these
29 . In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'ORANGE' be arranged so that the three vowels never come together ?
(1) 144 (2) 720 (3) 360 (4) 576
30 . Compound interest accrued on an amount of Rs.10,000/- in two years was Rs.3,225/- . What was the rate of interest p.c.p.a ?
(1) 15 (2) 12 (3) 11.5 (4) None of these
31. Which of the following values of x will satisfy the inequality x2 - 2x - 3 < 0 ?
(1) x < -1 & x < 3 (2) -1 < x < 3 (3) -1 > x or x > 3 (4) None of these
32. If A >B > C > D > E are positive non-zero integers, A-D can be –
(X) greater than B – C (Y) smaller than D – E (Z) greater than C – E
Correct deduction/s is/are
(1)
X only (2) Y only
(3) Z only (4) X
and Z only
33. A fashion-clothing store has the policy of reducing the price of any item by 10% (ignoring fraction of a rupee) at the beginning of every month till the item is sold off. An item introduced for the first time in January 2002 was finally sold of in March 2002 for Rs. 656. The introductory price of the item must have been
(1) Rs. 800 (2) Rs. 820 (3) Rs 810 (4) none of above
34. Hari has three children. The difference
in age between his middle child and the eldest is exactly the same as
the
age of the middle child. The difference in age between the youngest and
the middle also is exactly the
same
as his youngest child. The sum of his children’s ages is 21 years. His
middle child Rama must be of age
(1) 2
(2 ) 4
(3) 3
(4)
none of these
35. The product of two integers is 24. How many values are possible for their sum?
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 8 (4) 14
36. If A x B means ‘B is the
mother of A’, A + B means ‘B is the husband of A’, then
which of the following shows
‘M
is the son of N’ ?
(1)
N x M + P
(2) K + M x N
(3)
L + M x P + N
(4) None of these
37. Ashish, Bhaskar, Chaitanya
and Damodar each play one of the following games: cricket, hockey,
football and
badminton.
Each game in turn is played by exactly one of them. Ashish cannot play
cricket or badminton,
Bhaskar
cannot play cricket or football, Chaitanya cannot play football or
hockey, and Damodar cannot play
hockey
or badminton. The games played:
(1) Cannot be determined
because the data is inconsistent.
(2) Cannot be determined since
two solutions are possible.
(3) are as follows: Ashish –
football, Bhaskar – hockey, Chaitanya – badminton, Damodar –
cricket.
(4) None of the above.
38. Samrat Ashok had ten chiefs, each of whom had to pay obeisance to him. They were numbered from 1 to 10 and the chief with number n had to give him n gold coins each weighing 10gms. The total weight of all coins received turned out to be 532gms. Ashok’s Mantri suspected that one of the chiefs had mixed brass with the gold and reduced the weight of each coin by a small amount, by 20%. The possibility of more than one chief cheating does not exist. Based on this information, we can conclude that
(1) It is impossible to find
who had cheated Ashok.
(2) Either Chief number 6 or
Chief number 8 had cheated.
(3) Chief number 9 had cheated.
(4) No one had cheated and the
Mantri was unnecessarily worried.
39. Both diagonals of a four sided figure are equal. Therefore,
(1) The figure is a square.
(2) The figure is either a
square or a rhombus.
(3) The figure is a rhombus.
(4) None of the above.
40. Given two fixed points,
(1) Exactly one straight
line and exactly one circle can pass through them.
(2) Many straight lines and
exactly one circle can pass through them.
(3) Exactly one straight line
and many circles can pass through them.
(4) None of the above.
41. The diagonal of an isosceles right angled triangle is 10√2 cm. A circle with centre as the vertex with the right angle and passing through the other two vertices is drawn.
(1) The area of the circle
is not known since many such circles can be drawn.
(2) The area of the triangle is
slightly less than one sixth the area of the circle ( 50 vs 100 π
).
(3) The area of the triangle is
100 and that of the circle is 200 π.
(4) None of the above.
42. Abdul’s mother is twice his age and his grandmother is thrice his age. He was born when his mother was more than twenty but was not yet thirty. His grandmother is at most seventy eight. Choose the best answer.
(1) Abdul is 25.(2) To determine Abdul’s age you need to know how old his grandmother was when his mother was born.
(3) Abdul is 26.
(4) Abdul’s mother is 48.
Directions for questions 43 to 47 : Answer
with reference to the graph below
The prices of soyabean and rice (per quintal) vary as follows:
The costs of cultivation per acre are Rs.2000 and Rs.16000 for soyabean and rice respectively. The yield per acre is 5 quintals and 30 quintals respectively. With reference to this data, answer the following questions.
43. The return on investment or profitability per acre (ratio of profit to cost) in month 0 of soyabean is
(1) Higher than that of rice.
(2) Lower than that of rice.
(3) Same as that of rice.
(4) Cannot be computed.
44. The profit and profitability of rice in month 6 are
(1) Rs.25000 and 1.6 respectively.
(2) Rs.21000 and 1.4 respectively.
(3) Rs.23000 and 1.4 respectively.
(4) Rs.23000 and 1.6 respectively.
45. If the inventory cost is 12% per annum, then the net profit per quintal for a trader who buys in month 0 and sells in month 6 is
(1) Rs.380 for soyabean and Rs.16 for rice.(2) Rs.380 for soyabean and Rs.28 for rice.
(3) Rs.440 for soyabean and Rs.28 for rice.
(4) None of the above.
46. The profitability ratios of growing soyabean, rice in month 0, and that of inventory holding from month 0 to month 6 for soyabean and rice respectively (approx. to nearest decimal) are:
(1) 1.5, 1.25, 0.42 and
0.022
(2) 1.5, 1.25, 0.84 and
0.048
(3) 2.75, 1.6, 0.42 and
0.22
(4) None of the above
47. A farmer with fixed irrigated land holding
and a trader with fixed amount of capital should respectively
(1) Grow rice and trade in rice.
(2) Grow soya and trade in rice.
(3) Grow soya and trade in soya.
(4) Grow rice and trade in soya.
Directions for questions 48 and 49: In each question below two equations denoted by I & II aregiven. You have to solve them and find out the relation between p and q.
Give answer if
(1) p < q(2) p ≤ q
(3) p > q
(4) p ≥ q
48 . I. p2 + 4p = 12
II. q2
- 5q + 6 = 0
49. I. p2 + 3p + 2 = 0
II. q2 - 3q + 2 = 0Directions for questions 50 and 52: In each of these questions, a question followed by data in three statements I, II and III is given. You have to study the question along with the data in all the statements and decide which of the statement(s) contain(s) information necessary to answer the question.
50 . What is the strength of the school ?
I .
Number of girls is 125% of the number of boys
III.
Number of boys and the girls are in the ratio of 4:5 respectively
(1) Only I & II
(2) Only I & III
(3) Only II & III
Only I & II or only II & III
51. What is the volume of the cylindrical tank ?
I. Height
of the tank is twice the diameter of the base
II Perimeter
of the base is 44 cms
III Perimeter
of the base is more than the height of the tank by 16 cms
(1) I & II only (2) I & III only (3) Any two of the three (4) None of these
52. What was the length of the train ?
I. Speed
of the train was 60 kmph
II. The
train takes 30 secs to cross a 250 metres long platform
III.
The train takes 15 secs to cross a signal pole
(1) I & II only (2) I and III only (3) All I,II & III (4) Any two of the three
Directions for questions 53 to 55. These questions are based on the following information. Study the information carefully and answer the questions.
The students of the ABC institute of Arts have an option to do specialization in either English or Philosophy or both English and Philosophy. Out of total 85 students boys and girls are in the ratio of 8:9 respectively. 45% of the boys have opted for only English. 40% of the total students have opted for only Philosophy. Out of the total girls in the institute 20% have opted for both. Number of boys opted for only Philosophy and both are in the ratio of 7:4 respectively.
53. How many boys have opted for only Philosophy ?
(1) 11 (2) 22 (3) 14 (4) None of these
54. How many students have opted for both the subjects ?
(1) 34 (2) 19 (3) 21 (4) None of these
55. How many girls have opted for English ?
(1) 20 (2) 25 (3) 18 (4)) None of these
Directions for questions 56 to 58 : Use the information given below to answer questions that follow:
In a football league with seven teams, 3 points are awarded for a win and 1 point is awarded to each team in case of a tie. However, each team plays each other twice during the season, and in the case of a team winning both the games against a particular opponent, the winning team receives an additional bonus point. In the last year’s league, the champion team C won all its games and the worst team L lost all its; (only) two teams, A and B, were tied for the second place and the teams D, E and F were in a deadlock in terms of the total points.
56. Which of the following situations are possible?
a).
Other than the team C, no team received any bonus point during the
season.
b). D,
E and F did not loose any game except for their losses to Team C.
(1) only
a), but not b) (2) only b), but not a)
(3) both a) and b) (4) neither a) nor b)
57. Which of the following is not a possible array of total points by the seven teams?
(1)
42, 31,
31, 14,
14, 14,
0
(2)
42,
16, 16,
15, 15,
15, 0
(3)
42, 30,
30, 13,
13, 13,
0
(4)
42, 21,
21, 11,
11, 11,
0
58. What is the minimum possible point earned by team E?
(1) thirteen (2) ten (3) eleven (4) none of the above
Directions for questions 59 to 62: Read the following information and answer the questions.
- A,B,C and D are four consultants with four reputed software companies viz., Atharva, Technotech, Infosoft and Vedic ( not necessarily in that order). They have done pioneering software work in the following languages: Java, Fortran, Pascal and Cobol which have fetched them the top four prizes in a world famous software exhibition.
- D has won neither the first nor the second prize.
- A’s work is in Cobol.
- Java software work bagged the second prize.
- Technotech consultant has done work in Pascal.
- C, the Atharva consultant won the fourth prize.
- The Infosoft consultant won the first prize.
59. First prize is won by –
(1)
Consultant B
(2) Consultant A
(3)
Java software work
(4) Pascal software work
60 . ‘D’ is the consultant of –
(1)
Infosoft
(2) Vedic
(3) Technotech
(4) Atharva
61 . Which of the following statements
correctly list(s) the descending order of the
prize-winning combination of
consultants/companies/language
work area ?
I
Cobol, Technotech, B
II
Vedic, D, Pascal
III
B, Technotech, Fortran
(1)
III only
(2) II only
(3) I & II
(4) I & III
62. Fortran work was done by –
(1) Vedic Consultant (2) Infosoft Consultant (3) B (4) None of these
Directions for questions 63 to 66: Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and –
Give answer (1) if the data in Statement I alone are
sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone
are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in Statement II alone are
sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone
are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data in Statement I alone or in
Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (4) if the data in both the Statements I and II
together are necessary to answer the question.
63. Who among A,B,C,D & E is the
shortest ?
I.
B and C are taller than E.
II.
D is taller than A but shorter than E.
64. Which code stands for “artificial” in a code language in which “Human” is denoted by “pi” ?
- “Artificial Intelligence” is denoted by “di ti” in that code language.
- “Enormous Human Intelligence” is denoted by “mi di pi” in that code language.
65. What is Raju’s rank from the last if he is 19th from the top ?
- There are 85 students in his class.
- Dilip who ranks 20th in Raju’s class is 66th from the last.
66. What is the area of a square field ?
- The perimeter of the field is twice the sum of its two sides.
- The cost of fencing around the field is Rs.4,000/- @ Re.1 per foot.
Directions for questions 67 to 72. In
the following questions the symbols @, *, #, £ and $ are used
with the
following meaning:
A @ B means A is smaller than B
A
* B means A is greater than B
A
# B means A is either greater than or equal to B
A
£ B means A is either smaller than or equal to B
A
$ B means A is equal to B
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I & II given below them is/are definitely true ?
Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true
Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true
Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true
Give answer (4) if both the Conclusions I and II are true
67. Statement
: D # P, Q @ R, P * R
Conclusions : I. Q
@ P
II
D * R
68. Statement
: Y @ Q, R * T, Q # R
Conclusions : I.
Y $ R
II Q * T
69. Statement
: N $ Y, Y @ Z, R * Y
Conclusions :
I. R $ Z
II.
Y @ R
70 Statement
: W * K, M @ L, K * M
Conclusions :
I. L * K
II. M @ W
71. Statement
: U * E, G @ F, F $ E
Conclusions : I.
G @ U
II. E @ G
72. Statement
: V * P, R @ P, Q @ R
Conclusions : I.
Q @ V
II. P * Q
Directions for questions 73 to 75: Six students A,B,C,D, E & F have secured different marks in a competitive examination. A’s marks are not more than E’s. C, who has more marks than F, is fifth in the ascending order of marks. E has more marks than D, but not as high as F & B. D’s marks are less than A.
73. Who amongst them has secured
maximum marks ?
(1)
B
(2) F
(3) Cannot be determined (4)
None of these
74. Which of the following represents
them in the descending order of their marks?
(1)
DAEFCB
(2) FCBEAD
(3) DAEBCF
(4) BCFEAD
75. Which of the following is true?
(1)
F secured more marks than B
(2) C
secured more marks than B
(3)F
stands 4th when all are arranged in the descending order of their marks
(4)D
has secured least marks