The PGSEM Admission Test consists of questions that evaluate a
candidate’s quantitative, verbal, logical and data interpretive
abilities. A set of sample questions that illustrate the nature of the
test is provided along with these guidelines. (Please note that actual
questions may or may not be of the same pattern)
a. You should be in your assigned seat at the test center latest by 9
a.m. Latecomers will not be admitted.
|Instructions for OMR Answer sheet|
The information provided in the OMR Answer sheet will be used during the admission process. In order to avoid errors in filling up the actual OMR Answer sheet, it is advisable that you practice darkening ovals in the sample application form at home. Check it for completeness and accuracy. (You will NOT be allowed to bring the sample application form to the examination hall.)
Please adhere to the following instructions for filling the sample application form. For marking each item on the form, specific instructions are given below.
Please use only HB Pencil (not pen) for filling up/marking the application form.
|Side 1 of OMR Answer sheet|
|Box 1 : Name of the
Write your last name (surname), first name and initial of the middle name in the blank cells (one letter in each cell; in all 29 cells are provided for this purpose). For example, the name “Rajesh Chandrakant Desai” should be written as “Desai Rajesh C”. Leave a cell blank between two parts of your name. (In case you find it difficult to mark your complete name due to insufficient number of cells, please enter only the initial(s) of your first name and middle name). Darken the appropriate oval under each letter.Box 2 : Test Admit Card Number
Write only the last five digits of your Test Admit Card Number in these cells and then darken the corresponding ovals in columns below each number. For example : If your Test Admit Card No. is B080001, write only 80001.Box 3 : Test Form Number
You will find a three digit Test Form Number on the front page of your Test Booklet, which will be given to you in the examination hall. When you get the Test Booklet, write Test Form Number in Box 3 and then darken the corresponding ovals.Box 4 : Telephone Number/ Mobile Number
Enter the telephone number /mobile number over which you could be contacted in Bangalore / Chennai, and darken the corresponding ovals. The box may be left blank if you do not have a number in Bangalore / Chennai.Box 5 : Test Booklet Number
Write your Test Booklet Number in Box 5 and then darken the corresponding ovals. You will find this stamped in on the front page (on top of right side) of your Test Booklet.
Box 6 : Work Experience (in
Write clearly your e-mail address at which you can be contacted. (There are no ovals to be darkened).Box 8: Name of current employer
Write the name of the organization/company with which you are currently employed. (There are no ovals to be darkened).ANSWERS
This section will be used to indicate the answers to the questions in the test.
|Side 2 of OMR Answer sheet|
Box 9: Address.
9.1 First line of address (1 8cells)
9. 2 Second line of address (19 cells)
9.3 Third line of address (19 cells)
9.4 City (12 cells)
9.5 Pincode (6 cells)
Write your complete address – each segment of the address in one line – in the blank cells and then darken the corresponding ovals in the columns below each letter/number (In case you find it difficult to mark your complete address due to insufficient number of cells, please abbreviate the address suitably).
9.6 Could you fill your complete address?
Write the date and place of the test, and then sign the declaration at the appropriate place.
1 2 3 4
Please note that oval should be dark and should be filled in as completely as possible.
Wrong methods of marking answers
Some incorrect methods of marking are shown below:
How to change your answer : If your wish to change your answer, ERASE completely the already darkened oval by using a good quality eraser and darken the new oval indicating the new answer. Do not darken more than one oval. If more than one oval is darkened, the answer will be counted as wrong by the computer.
This document provides a selection of questions that have been asked in the past. It is indicative of the nature of questions that will appear in the PGSEM Admission Test. The sections, number of questions in each section, instructions etc. are provided to allow candidates to familiarize themselves with the nature of the test.
Please note that the number of sections, type of questions, number of questions, insructions for questions are subject to change from year to Year.
Number of Questions: 25
Directions for questions 1 to 10: In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Identify the appropriate word in each case.
For half a century, Peter G Drucker has been teacher and adviser to senior managers in business, human service organizations, and government. Sometimes called the godfather of modern management, he _____(1)_____ an acute understanding of socio-economic ______(2)___ with practical insights into how leaders can turn ______(3)____ into opportunity. With a rare ____(4)_____ for synthesis, Drucker nourishes his _____(5)_____ mind on a full range of intellectual disciplines, from Japanese art to network theory in higher mathematics. Yet he learns most from in-depth conversation with clients and students: a global network of men and women who _____(6)____ their ideas from action and act on ideas.
Since 1946, when his book Concept of the Corporation redefined employees as a resource rather than a cost, Drucker’s works have become an ever-growing ____(7)____ for leaders in every major culture, particularly among Japan’s top decision makers in the critical stages of their ____(8)_____ to world business leadership. A ______(9)____ share of productive organizations world-wide are led by men and women who consider Drucker their intellectual guide, if not their personal _____(10)____.
(1) co-exists (2) combines (3) cooperates (4) coordinates
(1) steps (2) layers (3) stratas (4) forces
(1) view (2) feeling (3) position (4) gift
(1) strength (2) contribution (3) resource (4) discussion
(1) fate (2) destiny (3) future (4) rise
(1) possessive (2) goodly (3) lamentable (4) projective
10.(1) manager (2) philosopher (3) co-worker (4) mentor
Directions for questions 11 to14: Read each sentence to detect whether there is any error in it. Each sentence is divided into three parts, namely 1, 2 or 3. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is '4'. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
11. If he would have prepared/
his lecture well in advance
12. While going to the office
yesterday I suddenly realized that/
have forgotten the key /to my office room at home.
13. No other library in town
has so many books/
14. People pay tribute to him on account of his/
and selfless service/for the nation and its people.
Directions for questions 15 to 19: Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given in bold letters.
(1) Harmful (2) Prosperous (3) Quiescent (4) Gentle
(1) Expansive (2) Operational (3) Realistic (4) Terse
(1) Outstanding (2) Dramatic (3) Wasteful (4) Phenomenal
(1) Possessive (2) Gloomy (3) Refreshed (4) Derogatory
Directions for questions 20 to 23: Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word given in bold letters.
(1) Timid (2) Precarious (3) Indolent (4) Inelegant
(1) Dubious (2) Restrained (3) Critical (4) Derogatory
(1) Unfavourable (2) Unjustified (3) Unthinkable (4) Unscrupulous
(1) Cheerless (2) Grimy (3) Advantageous (4) Safe
Directions for questions 24 and 25: Indentify the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
24. He tends to __________ any suggestion I make in meetings.
(1) venture (2) precipitate (3) clement (4) discount
25. He _________the children to open their eyes and ears to the beauty of life.
(1) admonished (2) promised (3) exhorted (4) complemented
Number of Questions: 50
Directions for questions 26 to 42: The questions below are independent of each other. Answer each independently.
26. Free note books were to be distributed equally among 60 children of a class. Since 15 children were absent on the day of distribution each child got 5 notebooks extra. What was the total number of notebooks available for distribution ?
(1) 750 (2) 1200 (3) 900 (4) None of these
27. Three of the following four parts
numbered (1), (2), (3) & (4) are exactly equal. The number of
is not equal to the remaining three parts is the
28. The area of a rectangular garden is 375 sq. metres and the length and the breadth are in the ratio of 5:3 respectively. What will be the cost of making a 80 cm broad pathway around boundary on all sides of the garden if cost of making the pathway is Rs.50/- per square metre?
(1) Rs.3200/- (2) Rs.3328/- (3) Rs.3228/- (4) None of these
29 . In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'ORANGE' be arranged so that the three vowels never come together ?
(1) 144 (2) 720 (3) 360 (4) 576
30 . Compound interest accrued on an amount of Rs.10,000/- in two years was Rs.3,225/- . What was the rate of interest p.c.p.a ?
(1) 15 (2) 12 (3) 11.5 (4) None of these
31. Which of the following values of x will satisfy the inequality x2 - 2x - 3 < 0 ?
(1) x < -1 & x < 3 (2) -1 < x < 3 (3) -1 > x or x > 3 (4) None of these
32. If A >B > C > D > E are positive non-zero integers, A-D can be –
(X) greater than B – C (Y) smaller than D – E (Z) greater than C – E
Correct deduction/s is/are
33. A fashion-clothing store has the policy of reducing the price of any item by 10% (ignoring fraction of a rupee) at the beginning of every month till the item is sold off. An item introduced for the first time in January 2002 was finally sold of in March 2002 for Rs. 656. The introductory price of the item must have been
(1) Rs. 800 (2) Rs. 820 (3) Rs 810 (4) none of above
34. Hari has three children. The difference
in age between his middle child and the eldest is exactly the same as
age of the middle child. The difference in age between the youngest and
the middle also is exactly the
as his youngest child. The sum of his children’s ages is 21 years. His
middle child Rama must be of age
35. The product of two integers is 24. How many values are possible for their sum?
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 8 (4) 14
36. If A x B means ‘B is the
mother of A’, A + B means ‘B is the husband of A’, then
which of the following shows
is the son of N’ ?
37. Ashish, Bhaskar, Chaitanya
and Damodar each play one of the following games: cricket, hockey,
Each game in turn is played by exactly one of them. Ashish cannot play
cricket or badminton,
cannot play cricket or football, Chaitanya cannot play football or
hockey, and Damodar cannot play
or badminton. The games played:
38. Samrat Ashok had ten chiefs, each of whom had to pay obeisance to him. They were numbered from 1 to 10 and the chief with number n had to give him n gold coins each weighing 10gms. The total weight of all coins received turned out to be 532gms. Ashok’s Mantri suspected that one of the chiefs had mixed brass with the gold and reduced the weight of each coin by a small amount, by 20%. The possibility of more than one chief cheating does not exist. Based on this information, we can conclude that
(1) It is impossible to find
who had cheated Ashok.
39. Both diagonals of a four sided figure are equal. Therefore,
(1) The figure is a square.
40. Given two fixed points,
(1) Exactly one straight
line and exactly one circle can pass through them.
41. The diagonal of an isosceles right angled triangle is 10√2 cm. A circle with centre as the vertex with the right angle and passing through the other two vertices is drawn.
(1) The area of the circle
is not known since many such circles can be drawn.
42. Abdul’s mother is twice his age and his grandmother is thrice his age. He was born when his mother was more than twenty but was not yet thirty. His grandmother is at most seventy eight. Choose the best answer.(1) Abdul is 25.
(2) To determine Abdul’s age you need to know how old his grandmother was when his mother was born.
(3) Abdul is 26.
(4) Abdul’s mother is 48.
Directions for questions 43 to 47 : Answer
with reference to the graph below
The costs of cultivation per acre are Rs.2000 and Rs.16000 for soyabean and rice respectively. The yield per acre is 5 quintals and 30 quintals respectively. With reference to this data, answer the following questions.
43. The return on investment or profitability per acre (ratio of profit to cost) in month 0 of soyabean is
(1) Higher than that of rice.
44. The profit and profitability of rice in month 6 are
(1) Rs.25000 and 1.6 respectively.
45. If the inventory cost is 12% per annum, then the net profit per quintal for a trader who buys in month 0 and sells in month 6 is(1) Rs.380 for soyabean and Rs.16 for rice.
(2) Rs.380 for soyabean and Rs.28 for rice.
(3) Rs.440 for soyabean and Rs.28 for rice.
(4) None of the above.
46. The profitability ratios of growing soyabean, rice in month 0, and that of inventory holding from month 0 to month 6 for soyabean and rice respectively (approx. to nearest decimal) are:
(1) 1.5, 1.25, 0.42 and
(1) Grow rice and trade in rice.
Directions for questions 48 and 49: In each question below two equations denoted by I & II aregiven. You have to solve them and find out the relation between p and q.
Give answer if(1) p < q
(2) p ≤ q
(3) p > q
(4) p ≥ q
48 . I. p2 + 4p = 12
49. I. p2 + 3p + 2 = 0II. q2 - 3q + 2 = 0
Directions for questions 50 and 52: In each of these questions, a question followed by data in three statements I, II and III is given. You have to study the question along with the data in all the statements and decide which of the statement(s) contain(s) information necessary to answer the question.
50 . What is the strength of the school ?
Number of boys and the girls are in the ratio of 4:5 respectively
(1) I & II only (2) I & III only (3) Any two of the three (4) None of these
52. What was the length of the train ?
(1) I & II only (2) I and III only (3) All I,II & III (4) Any two of the three
Directions for questions 53 to 55. These questions are based on the following information. Study the information carefully and answer the questions.
The students of the ABC institute of Arts have an option to do specialization in either English or Philosophy or both English and Philosophy. Out of total 85 students boys and girls are in the ratio of 8:9 respectively. 45% of the boys have opted for only English. 40% of the total students have opted for only Philosophy. Out of the total girls in the institute 20% have opted for both. Number of boys opted for only Philosophy and both are in the ratio of 7:4 respectively.
53. How many boys have opted for only Philosophy ?
(1) 11 (2) 22 (3) 14 (4) None of these
54. How many students have opted for both the subjects ?
(1) 34 (2) 19 (3) 21 (4) None of these
55. How many girls have opted for English ?
(1) 20 (2) 25 (3) 18 (4)) None of these
Directions for questions 56 to 58 : Use the information given below to answer questions that follow:
In a football league with seven teams, 3 points are awarded for a win and 1 point is awarded to each team in case of a tie. However, each team plays each other twice during the season, and in the case of a team winning both the games against a particular opponent, the winning team receives an additional bonus point. In the last year’s league, the champion team C won all its games and the worst team L lost all its; (only) two teams, A and B, were tied for the second place and the teams D, E and F were in a deadlock in terms of the total points.
56. Which of the following situations are possible?
Other than the team C, no team received any bonus point during the
57. Which of the following is not a possible array of total points by the seven teams?
58. What is the minimum possible point earned by team E?
(1) thirteen (2) ten (3) eleven (4) none of the above
Directions for questions 59 to 62: Read the following information and answer the questions.
59. First prize is won by –
60 . ‘D’ is the consultant of –
61 . Which of the following statements
correctly list(s) the descending order of the
prize-winning combination of
work area ?
62. Fortran work was done by –
(1) Vedic Consultant (2) Infosoft Consultant (3) B (4) None of these
Directions for questions 63 to 66: Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and –
Give answer (1) if the data in Statement I alone are
sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone
are not sufficient to answer the question.
|CAUTION: Do NOT mark your answer unless you consider both the statements carefully.|
63. Who among A,B,C,D & E is the
64. Which code stands for “artificial” in a code language in which “Human” is denoted by “pi” ?
65. What is Raju’s rank from the last if he is 19th from the top ?
66. What is the area of a square field ?
Directions for questions 67 to 72. In
the following questions the symbols @, *, #, £ and $ are used
A @ B means A is smaller than B
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I & II given below them is/are definitely true ?
Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true
: D # P, Q @ R, P * R
: Y @ Q, R * T, Q # R
: N $ Y, Y @ Z, R * Y
: W * K, M @ L, K * M
: U * E, G @ F, F $ E
: V * P, R @ P, Q @ R
Directions for questions 73 to 75: Six students A,B,C,D, E & F have secured different marks in a competitive examination. A’s marks are not more than E’s. C, who has more marks than F, is fifth in the ascending order of marks. E has more marks than D, but not as high as F & B. D’s marks are less than A.
73. Who amongst them has secured
maximum marks ?
74. Which of the following represents
them in the descending order of their marks?
75. Which of the following is true?
Number of Questions: 25
|Directions for questions 76
to 100: Read the following passages carefully
and answer the questions given below each. Certain words are
underlined to help you to locate them while answering some
of the questions
For more than a century, the Industrial Gases Division of BC, a huge British conglomerate, had joined the march of industrial progress across the British Empire. Its 35,000 people worked in fifteen countries around the globe to produce and deliver oxygen, nitrogen helium, and a wide variety of industrial gases to manufacturers of products ranging from steel and food to microchips.
Industrial Gases maintained a steady, if remarkable, course until 1993. Then, in a sharp break with its staid British traditions the company elevated C K Chow to its top post. Chow, head of Industrial Gases’ Hong Kong subsidiary, was an aggressive entrepreneur with a strong belief that the sluggish giant had lost touch with the competitive realities of the late twentieth century.
As he settled into the corporate headquarters outside London and surveyed the worldwide operation, Chow’s concern only grew deeper. He saw an organization resistant to new ideas, focused on internal concerns rather than on customer needs, and fixated on geographic boundaries that discouraged collaboration. While the operation faced no imminent crisis, it was clearly an underperformer, seemingly content to pursue business as usual in a world where markets and technology were constantly changing. He came to believe that two particular problems, if left unresolved, might soon become critical.
First, Industrial Gases was slow to develop new technology and slow to diffuse it throughout the company. A new manufacturing or delivery process developed by the company’s Australian subsidiary might take years to show up at the other Industrial Gases operations. In the meantime, competitors were copying the Australian break-throughs and using them to gain advantage over Industrial Gases subsidiaries in other countries.
Second, from a historical standpoint, the industrial gases business had been intensely local; plants were located right next to steel mills, for instance, and few customers had global operations. By the early 1990s, that was changing. Major microchip producers, such as Intel and IBM, had little patience for dealing separately with BOC in a dozen different counties; they wanted to streamline their relationships and have just one BOC contact – and if they couldn’t they were more than willing to take their business elsewhere.
Convinced that the company’s plodding performance was rooted in fundamental organizational problems, Chow secluded himself with the dozen members of his senior team near the ancient village of Runnymede. There, they spent days thrashing out the company’s problems with regard to organizational structure and processes and hammering out a new vision for the future. They resolved that in order to be truly competitive in a full range of local and worldwide markets, they would have to become “the most customer-focused” company in the industrial gases business “through innovation and service created by working together around the globe.”
76. What did Chow realize after taking over the top post at Industrial Gases ?
77. Which of the following statements about C K Chow is NOT correct ?
78. What was Chow’s diagnosis about the Company’s poor performance ?
79. What was decided by Chow and his colleagues at Runnymede ?
80. Which of the following problems was considered to be critical by Chow ?
81. Which of the following statements is TRUE in the context of the passage ?
82. What did Chow do with his colleagues at Runnymede ?
83. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE in the context of the passage ?
84 Which of the following
words is OPPOSITE in meaning to the word ‘sluggish’ as
(1) fast-moving (2) inactive (3) strong (4) durable
Over the years, there has been pressure for increased productivity and higher earnings for workers in industry. Employee earning can be increased by raising the selling price of the firm’s products and services, reducing profits or costs of raw materials, or augmenting labour productivity. However, increasing employee earnings by means other than increased labour productivity jeopardizes the firm’s competitive strength in the market. Higher prices usually mean fewer customers, reduced profit means less capital investment, and low-cost materials mean poor product quality. But, increasing labour productivity by enhancing skills and motivation creates an almost unlimited resource. The development of economic resources, human as well as nonhuman, is the product of human effort, and the quality of human effort in large part depends on human motivation.
Motivating employees with traditional authority and financial incentives has become increasingly difficult as employees become economically secure and their dependency on any one particular organization decreases. According to expectancy theorists, the motivation to work increases when an employee feels his performance is an instrument for obtaining desired rewards. Nevertheless, in many organizations today employees are entitled to organizational rewards just by being employed. Unions, governmental regulations, and the nature of the job itself in some cases prevent management from relating financial rewards to performance. People may be attracted to join and remain in organizations to receive organizational rewards, but being motivated to join an organization is not the same as being motivated to exert effort in an organization. The challenge to management is to find and administer alternative forms of incentives which will induce employees to improve work performance. Such alternative forms of reinforcement will require increased understanding of motivational theories and programmes.
85. Which of the following factors create unlimited resources for organizations ?
86. Which of the following does
not contribute to the increased employee earnings, in
87. Which of the following statements is TRUE in the context of the passage ?
88. Which of the following
factors, according to the passage, imperils the
89. Which of the following factors determine the quality of human efforts ?
90 Employees feel motivated to work when they –
91. Which of the following words is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word “jeopardize” as used in the passage ?
(1) safeguard (2) endanger (3) project (4) devalue
92. In the context of the passage, company’s competitive strength in the market is affected mainly because of –
93. Which of the following statements is/are NOT TRUE in the context of the passage ?
|(1) A and B only (2) C only (3) A and C only (4) B and C only|
Man’s growth from barbarism into civilization is supposed to be the theme of history but sometimes, looking at great stretches of history, it is difficult to believe that this ideal has made such progress or that we are very much civilized or advanced. There is enough of want of cooperation today, of one country or people selfishly attacking or oppressing another, of one man exploiting another.
It is well to remember that man in many ways has not made very great progress from other animals. It may be that in certain ways some animals are superior to him. Still we look down upon the insects as almost the lowest of living things, and yet the tiny bees and ants have learnt the art of cooperation and of sacrifice for the common good far better than man. If mutual cooperation and sacrifice for the good of society are the test of civilization we may say that the bees and ants are in this respect superior to man. In one of our old Sanskrit books there is a verse which may be translated as follows: “For family, sacrifice the individual, for community, the family, for the country, the community, and for the soul, the whole world”. What a soul is, few of us can know or tell, and each one of us can interpret it in a different way, but the lesson this Sanskrit Verse teaches us is the same lesson of cooperation and sacrifice for the larger good. We in India had forgotten this sovereign path of real greatness for many a day. But again we seem to have glimpses of it and all the country is astir. How wonderful it is to see men and women, and boys and girls, smilingly going ahead in India’s cause and caring about any pain or suffering ! Well, may they smile and be glad for the joy of serving a great cause is also great. They will also be fortunate enough to get the joy of sacrifice.
94. What is the theme of history ?
95. In what respects are some animals superior to man ?
96. What does the soul signify ?
97. What lesson does the Sanskrit Verse in question teach us ?
98. We say that man is not yet civilized because -
99. We should not look down upon
the insects as almost the lowest of living
100. What does the sentence “All the country is astir” mean in the passage ?